Unduh kunci jawaban LKS materi UN Bahasa Inggris tahun pelajaran 2019/2020 cetakan Putra Nugraha (seperti cover diatas), bisa digunakan untuk materi pendalaman dan pengayaan jelang UNBK Bahasa Inggris. [unduh pdf]
Showing posts with label ujian nasional. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ujian nasional. Show all posts
Sunday, September 29, 2019
Tuesday, February 20, 2018
Listening Detik 2018
Wednesday, January 10, 2018
Unduh Kunci Jawaban Detik Bahasa Inggris 2018
Ujian Nasional berbasis komputer tingkat satuan pendidikan SMA/MA tentunya harus disikapi dengan gigih berlatih, belajar dengan sungguh-sungguh & terjadwal secara rutin. Waktu 24 jam sehari seyogyanya mampu diluangkan 2-4 jam belajar secara mandiri guna memperoleh hasil yang optimal serta memuaskan. Tentunya usaha yang dilakukan membutuhkan biaya, waktu, pikiran dan emosional yang sudah terkondisikan. Latihan mandiri dengan menggunakan Detik-detik UNBK mata pelajaran Bahasa Inggris yang mencakup soal listening dan soal reading. Soal latihan yang terangkum dalam buku ini cukup berbobot dan layak direkomendasikan sebagai buku pendamping belajar dalam rangka ujian nanti. Nah bagi sobat semua yang membutuhkan kunci jawaban detik bahasa inggris, pergunakan secara bijak agar benar-benar membawa manfaat & kesuksesan. Klik link di bawah ini untuk mengunduh kunci jawaban:
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Monday, January 8, 2018
Akasia Bahasa Inggris 2017/2018
Berikut kunci jawaban buku akasia mata pelajaran Bahasa Inggris, pemantapan ujian nasional tahun 2017/2018, caranya klik link berikut ini. Cek kunci jawaban sebelum menggunakan. Gunakan untuk persiapan sekaligus latihan secara mandiri meningkatkan pemahaman & pengetahuan Bahasa Inggris tingkat SMP/MTS semoga bermanfaat, salam sukses ujian nasional ;
Related Posts:
Sunday, December 13, 2015
Berlatihlah, Melakukan Simulasi adalah bentuk kesiapan
Bagi seseorang yang ingin sukses dibidangnya lakukan simulasi latihan sebagai bentuk persiapan sekaligus wujud kesiapan dalam menghadapi situasi di luar perkiraan (unpredictable situation). Hanya melakukan simulasi juga harus sesuai dengan prosedur, harus memiliki standar kelayakan, standar kualitas hingga standar keselamatan. Lebih baik lagi jika dilakukan bersama-sama, lebih dari 1 peserta (participant). Simulasi secara individu atau kelompok hanya bisa dilakukan jika memiliki perangkat ataupun prasyarat yang mendukung. Saya pernah membaca beberapa ulama atau para tabiin, melakukan simulasi di kubur, di dalam rumahnya dibuat semacam liang (lubang) lahat kemudian ketika imannya dirasa sedang menurun, mereka melakukan simulasi dengan berbaring di dalam lubang tersebut sehingga merasakan begitu sepi dikubur di bawah tanah, apa jadinya jika hanya sendirian tanpa teman, apa jadinya jika amal-amalnya tidak mencukupi, apa jadinya jika banyak dosa yang dilakukan, apa jadinya jika banyak perintah Allah swt yang ditinggalkan, sehingga simulasi ini bertujuan untuk muhasabah atau instropeksi diri, mengingat kembali sejatinya tujuan asli dari adanya manusia hidup di dunia yang fana ini. Banyak sekali manfaat dari sebuah simulasi bagi para pelakunya.
Berikut contoh soal simulasi ujian nasional tahun 2016 berdasarkan sumber dari pemateri Dr. Kidam, MS. Ed, yang saya dapatkan dalam acara bedah SKL guru mapel UN tahun 2016.
Listening Section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part.
PART I
Questions 1 to 3
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and questions spoken in English. The dialogues and questions will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
After you listen to the dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers, and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:
Boy : Do you use the Internet very often?
Girl : Yes, I do. I use it for communication.
Boy : How do you communicate with it?
Girl : I send and receive emails, and I speak with my friends using voice mail.
Narrator: What is the main topic of the conversation?
Sample answer
You will read in your test book:
A. How to use email.
B. Receiving emails.
C. Communication.
D. Internet usage.
E. Voice mail.
The best answer to this question is choice D “Internet usage”. Therefore you should choose answer (D).
1. Dian : Hi, Daniel! You look unhealthy, don’t you?
Daniel : Yes, I get a headache and a stomachache.
Dian : You should go to doctor right now. Come on, I will accompany you.
Daniel : Ok. Thank you.
Narrator: What is the dialog about?
A. Giving
advise
B. Asking
for help
C. Expressing
a purpose
D. Asking
for and giving opinions
E. Asking
for and giving directions
2. Andi : Hi, Vina. Can you solve my problem?
Vina : What is your problem, Andi?
Andi : I can’t finish my math homework. I think you can solve it
Vina : I want to help you. But I’m very busy now, I promise I will help you later.
Andi : Thank you
Vina : You’re welcome
Narrator : What is Andi’s problem?
A. Andi is very busy
B. Andi can’t help Vina
C. Andi can’t finish his homework
D. Andi forgets to bring his homework
E. Andi promise to finish his homework
3. Father : You look so happy, Sarah. I’m interested in to know what happened to you?
Sarah : Sure Dad, I got the highest score for math again.
Father : Really? Congratulation for your success, Sarah!
Narrator : Why does Sarah feel happy?
A. Andi
is very busy
B. Andi
can’t help Vina
C. Andi
can’t finish his homework
D. Andi
forgets to bring his homework
E. Andi
promise to finish his homework
PART II
Questions: 4 to 8
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogues spoken in English, followed by four responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your text book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to each question.
Now listen to a sample question.
Sample answer
A B C D
You will hear:
Man : We haven’t met for years.
Woman: Indeed, since we graduated from junior high school. I miss you all.
Man : We’ll have a reunion on December 17. Would you care to come?
Woman: …
You will also hear:
Narrator: What does the woman probably reply?
A. Certainly.
B. Never mind.
C. I’m worried.
D. That’s alright.
The best response to the question “Would you care to come?” is choice (A), “Certainly.”
Therefore, you should answer choice (A).
4.
Dika: Hi, Sari! How are you getting on today?
Sari: I’m fine, and you?
Dika: I’m fine, too. Have you finished typing the annual report we discussed last week?
Sari: Yes, I’ve done it. You mean this report?
Dika: That’s right.
Sari: How do you think about it?
Dika: …
Narrator: What does Dika probably response?
A. You’d better hurry.
B. Well done. Congratulation!
C. You’ve done this report excellently.
D. Terrific! We had a lovely time there.
5.
Man: We have been waiting for the bus almost an hour.
Woman: Yes, I suppose its route has been changed.
Man: I think so. It never passes through this road.
Woman: ….
Narrator: What would the woman probably respond?
A. It’s better we take a taxi.
B. It is good for our health.
C. It will be delightful.
D. It’s nice.
6.
Zainal: Which bag do you prefer, Vivie?
Vivie: I think this bag is much prettier than that one.
What is your opinion of it?
Zainal: …
Narrator: What does the boy probably response?
A. I wish you luck.
B. I am find, thanks.
C. I see what you mean.
D. In my view, the color is suitable for you.
7.
Rita: Where have you been? I have not seen you for two days.
Dewa: Well, I have been sick since Sunday
Rita: What’s wrong with you?
Dewa: I have had a terrible cold all weeks
Rita: …
Narrator: What would the girl likely reply?
A. You look fabulous
B. I am a pity with you.
C. Thanks for your support
D. I hope you feel better soon.
PART III
Questions 9 to 11
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and a monologue spoken in English. The dialogues and a monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to a dialogue or monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and decide which one would be most suitable with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.
8.
Child: Mom, what are you doing?.
Mom: I am making a tart cake for our grandmother’s birthday.
Child: Can I help you?
Mom: Of course dear. Please insert the dough in the oven and turn the temperature on
1200c
Narrator: Which picture goes with the dialogue?
9.
Customer: Excuse me, mam! Could you help me to find the best chain, please?
I would like to buy it to fix my motorcycle.
Sales Person: Yes, certainly! It is the good product in our shop.
Custumer: Okay. I take this one.
Sales person: Thank you, sir. Here it is.
Custumer: You’re welcome.
Narrator: Which picture is the most suitable with the dialogue?
10. Mr.sunarto: Did you finish typing the proposal?
Mrs. Dian: Not yet, Sir. There is any mistake on it and need to revise before
submitting to the manager.
Mr.Sunarto : All right, please copy the proposal after you revise, then bring it to my room.
Mrs.Dian: Okay, Sir.
Narrator: Which picture goes with the dialogue?
Question 11 is based on the following story.
Woman:
Tornadoes are known as one of the most damaging disasters. A tornado is a very powerful column of winds which spirals around a center of low atmospheric pressure. A tornado will look like a large black funnel which hangs down from a storm cloud. The name "tornado" derives from the Latin "tonare". It means "to thunder." While the Spanish developed the word into "tornear" which means "to turn or twist". This is why a tornado is sometimes called twister or cyclone. The winds inside a twister can spin around at speeds up to 500 miles an hour, but it usually travels at roughly 300 miles an hour. This speed twisting makes a tornado the most dangerous storm
11. Narrator: which picture goes to the story?
PART IV
Questions 12 to 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.
Question 12 and 13 are based on the following story.
Man:
Prambanan temple
Prambanan is the largest Hindu temple compound in central Java in Indonesia, located approximately 18 km east of Yogyakarta The temples a UNESCO world heritage site and is one of the largest hindu temple in south-east Asia, it is characteristic by its tall and pointed architecture, and by the 47 high central building inside a large complex of individual temples. It was builr around 850 CE by either Rakai Pikatan, King of the second Mataram dynasty, or Balitung Maha Sambu, during Sanjaya Dynasty. Not long after its construction, the temple was abandoned and began to deteriorate. Reconstruction of the compound began in 1918. The main building was completed in around 1953. Much of the original stonework has been stolen and reused at remote construction sites. A temple will only be rebuilt if at least 75% of the original stones are available, and therefore only the foundation wall of most of the smaller temples are now visible and with no plans for their reconstruction.
Narrator: Question number 12: What is the story about?
A. Rakai Pikatan
B. Hindust temple
C. Mataran dinasty
D. Prambanan temple
E. The original temple
Narrator: Question number 13: When did the temple build?
A. 1918
B. 1928
C. 1953
D. 1963
E. 1973
Questions 14 and 15 are based on the following monologue.
A long ago, there lived a witch in a humble house. One morning, one of the witch’s friends came over to visit. When she looked around the room, she said.” Your house is ugly. My house is beautiful and the walls are bright.” The witch was very angry when she heard this and shouted,”get out of my house and don’t ever come back again.” After her friend left, the witch looked around her house and realized that her friend was right. She had to repaint the house. Then she went to a shop and bought a can of paint. After lunch, she started to paint and worked very hard. In the afternoon she finished the lower part of her house. When she was about to paint the upper part, she realized that she could not reach it. Then she came up whit an idea. “i will use my magical broom! Turn into a paintbrush and paint my wall!” turn into a paintbrush and paint my wall” the witch instructed her broom. Suddenly, the broom turned into the paintbrush and it starts to paint to upper walls. The broom finished its job in 10 minutes and the witch was very satisfied with the result.
Question number 14. What did the witch’s friend think about her house?
A. it
had bright-painted walls
B. it had colorful fences
C. it was messy
D. it was huge
E. it was ugly
Question number 15. How did the witch paint the upper part of the walls?
A. She used her magical broom.
B. She asked her friend’s help.
C. She bought a paintbrush.
D. She left it unpainted.
E. She went a shop
THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING SECTION
Reading Section
The following text is for questions 16 and 17.
Dear Mr. Green,
I am writing concerning claim $760. The amount that your adjusters have set for the damage caused by Hurricane Harry to my barn is unacceptably low.The amount that your company has offered would not even allow doing the work myself, as the materials alone would cost almost $300 more than your estimate. I am including the estimate from our independent contractors that I have asked to inspect the damage to my barn, and their estimates vary between $1,500 and $1,750. I would like your company to take into consideration the estimates I have provided and reevaluate your settlement offer. If you continue to deny the fact that your offer is unacceptably low, I will need to seek legal counsel. I will appreciate your immediate attention to this matter.
Yours sincerely,
Mathew Liverpool
16. The letter tells us about ...
A. Hurricane Harry.
B. Mr. Green’s company.
C. A construction project.
D. An estimate of funding.
E. Mr. Liverpool’s complain.
17. Based on the text, the writer infer that ....
A. Mr.Green failed to send contractors to inspect the barn
B. Mr.Green estimated the amount payable to Mr. Liverpool
C. Mr. Green estimated higher than what Mr. Liverpool had expected 47
D. Mr. Liverpool was frustrated by the damage caused by Hurricane Harry
E. Mr. Liverpool was disappointed by the estimate made by Mr. Green's adjusters
The following text is for questions 18 and 19.
We are announcing today that we are bringing the milestone and ever green brands even closer together. Effective as of 5th December 2009, our official name will be:
18. What does the text tell us about?
A. The mergers of two companies.
B. The new service of company.
C. The new office of company.
D. The change of office name.
E. The result of agreement.
19. Which of the following statements is closely related to the text?
A. The corporate offices were protested.
B. There was conflict between Green Miles West and Milestone.
C. The loyal consumers created an official name for the company.
D. The quality of the products will be different from the former products.
E. The name green “Miles West” will be effective as of 5th December 2009.
The following text is for questions 20 to 22.
British Transport Police have launched a public appeal to get the rare instrument back and the musician insurer, Lark Insurance Broking Group, has offered a ₤ 15.000 reward for information leading to recovery. Detective Inspector Andy Rose said the theft took place on the evening of Monday, Nov. 29, outside Euston train station. After going to a Prêt A Manger café, the violinist noticed her violin case had been taken and called the police. Inside the case was a 1696 Antonio Stradivarius antique violin as well as Peccatte bow, valued at ₤62.000, and another bow made by the School of Bazin valued at more than ₤5000. “These items hold enormous sentimental and professional value for the victim,“ Rose said in a statement. “But although they are extremely valuable, it would be very difficult to sell them on as they are so rare and distinctive that they will be easily recognized as stolen property.”- Reuters
20. The topic of the text is about ….
A. A Prêt A Manger café
B. Losing $1.9 million Stradivarius
C. A 300-year-old-Stradivarius violin
D. Antonio Stradivarius antique violin
E. ₤ 15.000 reward offered by Lark Insurance
21. Which of the following did not make the stolen violin difficult to sell?
A. It is old.
B. It is rare.
C. It is antique.
D. It is expensive.
E. It is distinctive.
22. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. Detective Inspector said the theft occurred inside of Euston train station.
B. Detective Inspector told the theft happens every evening of Monday.
C. Andy Rose kept the thief outside of Euston train station.
D. The theft the theft happened on Monday evening.
E. The theft took place inside of the location.
This text is for questions 23 to 25.
BAGHDAD (Reuters) - Six U.S. soldiers were killed by a blast north of Baghdad on Monday, the U.S. military said on Tuesday, in one of the single deadliest ground attacks against American forces in Iraq in months. Three other soldiers were wounded after an explosion went off near their vehicles in the province of Salahaddin, the military said in a statement, without giving details. Salahaddin is a Sunni Arab insurgent stronghold. More than 3,170 U.S. soldiers have died in Iraq since the U.S.-led invasion in March 2003. Iraqi and U.S. forces are in the third week of a security crackdown in Baghdad aimed at stemming sectarian violence. U.S. military commanders have expressed concerns that insurgents could step up attacks outside Baghdad
23. The text talks about ….
A. six U.S. soldiers killed by a blast
B. attacking against American
C. a blast north of Baghdad
D. a Sunni Arab insurgent
E. the U.S. military
24. Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the text?
A. Insurgents could increase attacks outside Baghdad.
B. Three soldiers were wounded after an explosion went off.
C. The U.S invasion has caused more than 3,170 of its soldiers died.
D. Six, US, soldiers died due to a blast north of Baghdad on Monday.
E. Iraqi and U.S. forces are in the second week of a security crackdown in Baghdad.
25. From the text, we can infer that …
A. there has been more than six thousand people died.
B. there was a large number of army died.
C. there has no people died in the battle.
D. there were only six soldiers died.
E. there were not soldiers died.
The following text is for questions 26 to 29.
Charles Robert Darwin was born in Shrewsbury, England, on February 12, 1809. He came from a wealthy family and never had to work. He studied medicine and theology. In 1831 he graduated from University of Cambridge with a degree of theology. He began a career as a scientist quite by chance. On December 27,1831, 22 years old Charles Darwin joined the crew of the HMS Beagle as a naturalist.The five years expedition collected hydro graphic, geologic, and meteorologic data from South America and many other regions around the world. Darwin's own observation on this voyage led to his theory of natural selection. Charles Darwin was greatly influenced by the geologist Adam Sedgwick and naturalist John Henslow in his development of the theory of natural selection, which was to become the foundation concept supporting the theory of evolution. Darwin's theory holds that environmental effects lead to varying degrees of reproductive success in individuals and groups of organisms. Natural selection tends to promote adaptation in organisms when necessary for survival. This revolutionary theory was published in 1859 in Darwin's now famous On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection.
26. Charles Darwin's theory of evolution believed that ....
A. environment affected natural election
B. organism needed adaptation to survive
C. people could defend themselves naturally
D. people and nature supported to each other
E. natural selection tend to adapt organism to survive
27. The first paragraph tells about…
A. Charles Robert Darwin.
B. Charles Darwin’s work.
C. The concept of theology.
D. Darwin’s Natural Selection.
E. Charles Darwin’s background.
28. The famous Darwin theory was published based on ....
A. theories developed by other scientists
B. the observation of other geologists' natural selection
C. his expedition and natural observation data a scientist
D. the influence of organisms adaptation in survival living
E. the success of his observation supported by geologist and naturalist
The following text is for questions 29 to 32.
Influenza, commonly known as "the flu", is an infectious disease caused by the influenza virus. Symptoms can be mild to severe. The most common symptoms include: a high fever, runny nose, sore throat, muscle pains, headache, coughing, and feeling tired. These symptoms typically begin two days after exposure to the virus and most last less than a week. The cough; however, may last for more than two weeks. In children there may be nausea and vomiting but these are not common in adults. Nausea and vomiting occur more commonly in the unrelated infection gastroenteritis, which is sometimes inaccurately referred to as "stomach flu" or "24-hour flu". Complications of influenza may include viral pneumonia, secondary bacterial pneumonia, sinus infections, and worsening of previous health problems such as asthma or heart failure. Influenza spreads around the world in a yearly outbreak, resulting in about three to five million cases of severe illness and about 250,000 to 500,000 deaths. In the Northern and Southern parts of the world outbreaks occur mainly in winter while in areas around the equator outbreaks may occur at any time of the year. Death occurs mostly in the young, the old and those with other health problems. Larger outbreaks known as pandemics are less frequent. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Influenza)
29. A part from cough, the symptoms of influence last for around …days
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
30. The text primarily reports about ….
A. the cause of influenza
B. the patients of influenza
C. the symptoms of influenza
D. the spread of influenza in the world
E. an infectious disease called influenza
31. In the Northern parts of the world influenza occurs mostly in ….
A. January
B. April
C. May
D. July
E. September
32. “Symptoms can be mild to severe.” (Paragraph 1)
The underlined word is closest in meaning to ….
A. big
B. light
C. high
D. short
E. heavy
The following text for questions 33 to 36.
Bees are useful insects. There are about 20,000 kinds of bees, but only honey bees make honey. Honey bees live in groups called colonies. Each colony has one female queen bee, ten of thousands or workers , and a few hundred male bees or drones. Honey bees live in hives. Inside their hive, the bees make a honey comb of wax. The honey comb is a kind of bee apartment building full of six - sided rooms in which the bees raises young and store food. The queen bee lays thousands of eggs. Worms look like larvae hatch from eggs. Each larva becomes a pupa, which looks partly like larva and partly like an adult bee. Worker bees feed the young, clean, guard the hive, and fly to and from flowers. They collect tiny grains of pollen and a sweet liquid called nectar for food. The pollen is food for young bees. Worker bees use the nectar to make honey. Without bees bringing pollen from flower to flower, many plants can’t make seeds.
33. The text mainly discusses about ....
A. a life cycle of honey bees
B. bees as useful insect in life
C. many kinds of different bees
D. types of flower chosen by bees
E. the process of producing honey
34. How do honey bees live?
A. Bees stay with their queen to produce honey.
B. They care young bees and guard the hives.
C. Honey bees live in a big group or colony.
D. These bees live in small group to survive.
E. Honey bees fly from one flower to other.
35. The second paragraph tells us about...
A. the functions of queen bee.
B. a reproduction of honey bees.
C. how honey bees produce honey.
D. how bees move to different places.
E. how eggs become larva, pupa then adult bee.
36. Based on the text, we infer that …
A. honey can be used for recovering the illness.
B. honey bees are hardly ever living in plants.
C. honey may not be hopeful for everyone.
D. honey is just for sweeting.
E. honey bees produce sugar.
The following text is for questions 37 and 38.
A. a job vacancy
B. a new restaurant
C. an amazing Kuta Beach
D. good waitresses and waiters
E. an opportunity to work in Kuta
38. What is one of the prerequisites requested?
A. Communicating English passively
B. Communicating English fluently
C. Behaving impolitely
D. Performing happily
E. Showing sympathy
The following text is for questions 39 to 42.
Nuclear power is generated by using uranium which is a metal mined in various part of the world. The first large scale of nuclear power station was opened at Calder Hall in Cumbria, England in 1956.
Some military ships and submarines have nuclear power plant for engine. Nuclear power produces around 11% of the world's energy needed, and produces huge amounts of energy. It causes no pollution as we would get when burning fossil fuels. The advantages of nuclear plant are: It costs about the same coal, so it is not expensive to make. It does not produce smoke or carbon dioxide, so it does not contribute to the greenhouse effect. It produces huge amounts of energy from small amount of uranium. It produces small amount of waste. It is reliable. On the other hand, nuclear power is very, very dangerous. It must be sealed up and buried for many years to allow the radioactivity to die away. Furthermore, although it is reliable, a lot of money has to be spent on safety because if it does go wrong, a nuclear accident can be a major accident. People are increasingly concerned about this matter. In the 1990's nuclear power was the fastest growing source of power in many parts of the world.
39. How energy is used to make nuclear power?
A. Coal
B. Fossil
C. Nuclear
D. Uranium
E. Carbon dioxide
40. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Nuclear power produces the world's energy.
B. Nuclear produces huge amounts of energy.
C. Nuclear power gives many advantages.
D. Nuclear produces strong energy.
E. Nuclear power is reliable.
41. Which of the following is not related to the text?
A. The cost is expensive.
B. It causes no pollution.
C. Nuclear power is very dangerous.
D. A little uranium can produce a big amount of energy.
E. In the 1990's nuclear power was the fastest growing source of power.
42. The text mainly discuss ….
A. The danger of nuclear power
B. The benefit of nuclear power
C. The advantage of nuclear power
D. The disadvantage of nuclear power
E. The advantage and disadvantage of nuclear power
The following text is for questions 43 to 45.
After my damning review of Eclipse, I’m sure you must have guessed that I didn’t hold out much hope for the finale of the Twilight saga, Breaking Dawn. Eclipse would have been a decent book as a standalone, but in the context of being the third book in a good series it should have offered a lot more. Thankfully, Breaking Dawn is of the quality that we expected after Twilight and New Moon. The book is written in three parts, the first and final part of which is from Bella’s point of view, as were the first three books in the saga. The middle part is Jacob Blacks point of view of the problem created in the first part. It is an interesting narrative, and the author pulled this off pretty well. The one downside of this was that her writing as Jacob was still a little reminiscent of a teenage girl, rather than a testosterone filled male werewolf. On honeymoon in Brazil, Bella and Edward consummate the marriage which begins the book. Bella begins to notice her body changing and they realise it is an over-accelerated pregnancy. The baby, which is half-vampire half-human, is threatening to destroy its mother, Bella. Breaking Dawn offers more than Eclipse but the story becomes a little predictable. It is a fine ending to a decent saga, but if Stephenie Meyer doesn’t want to run the series into the ground she won’t bother writing any prequel/sequel/parallel stories in the Twilight saga, because with each book they all got a bit repetitive. As a standalone book, it was an easy read and full of the twists and turns we have seen Meyer pull off in the saga. As the fourth book in the Twilight series it was a fitting finale. The twi-hards (twilight fanatics) will undoubtedly be happy with the way the book ends, but for fantasy readers who are less tolerant of the clichéd stories and fairytale-esque approach, nothing will particularly come as a surprise. Breaking Dawn is a must-read if you have started the series and want to see the story through.
43. What does the text tell about?
A. A good book of Twilight Saga
B. The final film of Twilight Saga
C. A review of Breaking Dawn film
D. A review of Breaking Dawn novel
E. A must-read book of Twilight Saga
44. Why is Breaking Dawn an easy read book?
A. Breaking Dawn is a standalone book.
B. The plot of the story is written orderly.
C. The story of Breaking Dawn is predictable.
D. The story of Breaking Dawn is really attractive.
E. Breaking Dawn is the final book of Twilight Saga.
45. The writer’s view of Breaking Dawn is that …
A. it is unworthy to read.
B. it is as good as Eclipse.
C. it is interesting book to read.
D. it less interesting than Twilight.
E. it less interesting than New Moon.
46. Arrange the following phrases or sentences into the correct order!
1) Boil sugar for about 30 minutes.
2) Scratch the flesh of a melon.
3) Put the decorations on the glass with a piece of strawberry on it.
4) Cut the fruit round or dice.
5) Pour the sugar water, put ice cubes and put milk on ice fruit.
The correct arrangement is …..
A. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3 – 5
B. 2 – 4 – 5 – 1 – 3
C. 2 – 4 – 1 – 5 – 3
D. 4 – 2 – 5 – 3 – 1
E. 2 – 5 – 1 – 3 – 4
47. Arrange the following sentences into the correct order!
(1) The first kingdom in Java was Medang Kamulan, and the king was the Giant King Dewata Cengkar, the cruel King of the country who had a habit to eat human flesh of his own people.
(2) Eventually, Aji Saka became a ruler of Medang Kamulan.
(3) One day a young wise man came to Java, by the name of Aji Saka to fight Dewata Cengkar.
(4) Dewata Cengkar did not die, he became a Bajul Putih (White Crocodile).
(5) After arriving in Java, Aji Saka moved inland to the kingdom of Medang Kamulan
(6) In the big battle, Aji Saka could successfully push Dewata Cengkar to fall to the Javan Southern Sea (Indian Ocean).
The correct arrangement is ….
A. 1-2-3-5-6-4
B. 1-3-5-6-4-2
C. 1-4-5-6-3-2
D. 1-5-3-6-2-4
E. 1-6-3-5-4-2
Questions 48 to 50, complete the following paragraph with the correct words provided.
Do you know Easter Island? Well, Easter Island is in the South Pacific, 3,700 kilometers from the coast of Chile. On the island, there are 600 large statues. We don’t know who built them but they were probably (48) … between 1150 and 1500. We don’t really know why they are there, The Easter Island. Norwegian explorer, Thor Heyerdahl, believed that they were built by people from South America. To prove this, he made a (49) … raft and sailed there, all the way from Peru.
Archaeologists think that the statues represent dead tribal leaders. We don’t know why the statues left alone on the island. Perhaps they were killed by disease or war. Perhaps the builders used all the natural resources on the island. There are many unanswered (50) … about Easter Island.
48. A. found
B. discovered
C. researched
D. constructed
E. investigated
49. A. simple
B. doubt
C. difficult
D. attractive
E. challenging
50. A. statements
B. hypotheses
C. predictions
D. questions
E. guesses
Reading Section
The following text is for questions 16 and 17.
Dear Mr. Green,
I am writing concerning claim $760. The amount that your adjusters have set for the damage caused by Hurricane Harry to my barn is unacceptably low.The amount that your company has offered would not even allow doing the work myself, as the materials alone would cost almost $300 more than your estimate. I am including the estimate from our independent contractors that I have asked to inspect the damage to my barn, and their estimates vary between $1,500 and $1,750. I would like your company to take into consideration the estimates I have provided and reevaluate your settlement offer. If you continue to deny the fact that your offer is unacceptably low, I will need to seek legal counsel. I will appreciate your immediate attention to this matter.
Yours sincerely,
Mathew Liverpool
16. The letter tells us about ...
A. Hurricane Harry.
B. Mr. Green’s company.
C. A construction project.
D. An estimate of funding.
E. Mr. Liverpool’s complain.
17. Based on the text, the writer infer that ....
A. Mr.Green failed to send contractors to inspect the barn
B. Mr.Green estimated the amount payable to Mr. Liverpool
C. Mr. Green estimated higher than what Mr. Liverpool had expected 47
D. Mr. Liverpool was frustrated by the damage caused by Hurricane Harry
E. Mr. Liverpool was disappointed by the estimate made by Mr. Green's adjusters
The following text is for questions 18 and 19.
We are announcing today that we are bringing the milestone and ever green brands even closer together. Effective as of 5th December 2009, our official name will be:
GREEN MILES WEST
The substitution of ‘West’ in our name replacing ’California’ is the result of an agreement we reached with California Gardening association following a protest over the original use of ‘California’ is our name. We hope this does not create any confusion among loyal consumers. While this represents a change from our initial name introduction, it doesn’t change the quality of products we offer to our consumers18. What does the text tell us about?
A. The mergers of two companies.
B. The new service of company.
C. The new office of company.
D. The change of office name.
E. The result of agreement.
19. Which of the following statements is closely related to the text?
A. The corporate offices were protested.
B. There was conflict between Green Miles West and Milestone.
C. The loyal consumers created an official name for the company.
D. The quality of the products will be different from the former products.
E. The name green “Miles West” will be effective as of 5th December 2009.
The following text is for questions 20 to 22.
Grab a sandwich, lose $1.9 million Stradivarius
LONDON: A musician who went into a central London sandwich store to buy something to eat has had a 300-year-old-Stradivarius violin worth ₤1.2 million (US$1.9 million) stolen, police said.British Transport Police have launched a public appeal to get the rare instrument back and the musician insurer, Lark Insurance Broking Group, has offered a ₤ 15.000 reward for information leading to recovery. Detective Inspector Andy Rose said the theft took place on the evening of Monday, Nov. 29, outside Euston train station. After going to a Prêt A Manger café, the violinist noticed her violin case had been taken and called the police. Inside the case was a 1696 Antonio Stradivarius antique violin as well as Peccatte bow, valued at ₤62.000, and another bow made by the School of Bazin valued at more than ₤5000. “These items hold enormous sentimental and professional value for the victim,“ Rose said in a statement. “But although they are extremely valuable, it would be very difficult to sell them on as they are so rare and distinctive that they will be easily recognized as stolen property.”- Reuters
20. The topic of the text is about ….
A. A Prêt A Manger café
B. Losing $1.9 million Stradivarius
C. A 300-year-old-Stradivarius violin
D. Antonio Stradivarius antique violin
E. ₤ 15.000 reward offered by Lark Insurance
21. Which of the following did not make the stolen violin difficult to sell?
A. It is old.
B. It is rare.
C. It is antique.
D. It is expensive.
E. It is distinctive.
22. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. Detective Inspector said the theft occurred inside of Euston train station.
B. Detective Inspector told the theft happens every evening of Monday.
C. Andy Rose kept the thief outside of Euston train station.
D. The theft the theft happened on Monday evening.
E. The theft took place inside of the location.
This text is for questions 23 to 25.
BAGHDAD (Reuters) - Six U.S. soldiers were killed by a blast north of Baghdad on Monday, the U.S. military said on Tuesday, in one of the single deadliest ground attacks against American forces in Iraq in months. Three other soldiers were wounded after an explosion went off near their vehicles in the province of Salahaddin, the military said in a statement, without giving details. Salahaddin is a Sunni Arab insurgent stronghold. More than 3,170 U.S. soldiers have died in Iraq since the U.S.-led invasion in March 2003. Iraqi and U.S. forces are in the third week of a security crackdown in Baghdad aimed at stemming sectarian violence. U.S. military commanders have expressed concerns that insurgents could step up attacks outside Baghdad
23. The text talks about ….
A. six U.S. soldiers killed by a blast
B. attacking against American
C. a blast north of Baghdad
D. a Sunni Arab insurgent
E. the U.S. military
24. Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the text?
A. Insurgents could increase attacks outside Baghdad.
B. Three soldiers were wounded after an explosion went off.
C. The U.S invasion has caused more than 3,170 of its soldiers died.
D. Six, US, soldiers died due to a blast north of Baghdad on Monday.
E. Iraqi and U.S. forces are in the second week of a security crackdown in Baghdad.
25. From the text, we can infer that …
A. there has been more than six thousand people died.
B. there was a large number of army died.
C. there has no people died in the battle.
D. there were only six soldiers died.
E. there were not soldiers died.
The following text is for questions 26 to 29.
Charles Robert Darwin was born in Shrewsbury, England, on February 12, 1809. He came from a wealthy family and never had to work. He studied medicine and theology. In 1831 he graduated from University of Cambridge with a degree of theology. He began a career as a scientist quite by chance. On December 27,1831, 22 years old Charles Darwin joined the crew of the HMS Beagle as a naturalist.The five years expedition collected hydro graphic, geologic, and meteorologic data from South America and many other regions around the world. Darwin's own observation on this voyage led to his theory of natural selection. Charles Darwin was greatly influenced by the geologist Adam Sedgwick and naturalist John Henslow in his development of the theory of natural selection, which was to become the foundation concept supporting the theory of evolution. Darwin's theory holds that environmental effects lead to varying degrees of reproductive success in individuals and groups of organisms. Natural selection tends to promote adaptation in organisms when necessary for survival. This revolutionary theory was published in 1859 in Darwin's now famous On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection.
26. Charles Darwin's theory of evolution believed that ....
A. environment affected natural election
B. organism needed adaptation to survive
C. people could defend themselves naturally
D. people and nature supported to each other
E. natural selection tend to adapt organism to survive
27. The first paragraph tells about…
A. Charles Robert Darwin.
B. Charles Darwin’s work.
C. The concept of theology.
D. Darwin’s Natural Selection.
E. Charles Darwin’s background.
28. The famous Darwin theory was published based on ....
A. theories developed by other scientists
B. the observation of other geologists' natural selection
C. his expedition and natural observation data a scientist
D. the influence of organisms adaptation in survival living
E. the success of his observation supported by geologist and naturalist
The following text is for questions 29 to 32.
Influenza, commonly known as "the flu", is an infectious disease caused by the influenza virus. Symptoms can be mild to severe. The most common symptoms include: a high fever, runny nose, sore throat, muscle pains, headache, coughing, and feeling tired. These symptoms typically begin two days after exposure to the virus and most last less than a week. The cough; however, may last for more than two weeks. In children there may be nausea and vomiting but these are not common in adults. Nausea and vomiting occur more commonly in the unrelated infection gastroenteritis, which is sometimes inaccurately referred to as "stomach flu" or "24-hour flu". Complications of influenza may include viral pneumonia, secondary bacterial pneumonia, sinus infections, and worsening of previous health problems such as asthma or heart failure. Influenza spreads around the world in a yearly outbreak, resulting in about three to five million cases of severe illness and about 250,000 to 500,000 deaths. In the Northern and Southern parts of the world outbreaks occur mainly in winter while in areas around the equator outbreaks may occur at any time of the year. Death occurs mostly in the young, the old and those with other health problems. Larger outbreaks known as pandemics are less frequent. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Influenza)
29. A part from cough, the symptoms of influence last for around …days
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
30. The text primarily reports about ….
A. the cause of influenza
B. the patients of influenza
C. the symptoms of influenza
D. the spread of influenza in the world
E. an infectious disease called influenza
31. In the Northern parts of the world influenza occurs mostly in ….
A. January
B. April
C. May
D. July
E. September
32. “Symptoms can be mild to severe.” (Paragraph 1)
The underlined word is closest in meaning to ….
A. big
B. light
C. high
D. short
E. heavy
The following text for questions 33 to 36.
Bees are useful insects. There are about 20,000 kinds of bees, but only honey bees make honey. Honey bees live in groups called colonies. Each colony has one female queen bee, ten of thousands or workers , and a few hundred male bees or drones. Honey bees live in hives. Inside their hive, the bees make a honey comb of wax. The honey comb is a kind of bee apartment building full of six - sided rooms in which the bees raises young and store food. The queen bee lays thousands of eggs. Worms look like larvae hatch from eggs. Each larva becomes a pupa, which looks partly like larva and partly like an adult bee. Worker bees feed the young, clean, guard the hive, and fly to and from flowers. They collect tiny grains of pollen and a sweet liquid called nectar for food. The pollen is food for young bees. Worker bees use the nectar to make honey. Without bees bringing pollen from flower to flower, many plants can’t make seeds.
33. The text mainly discusses about ....
A. a life cycle of honey bees
B. bees as useful insect in life
C. many kinds of different bees
D. types of flower chosen by bees
E. the process of producing honey
34. How do honey bees live?
A. Bees stay with their queen to produce honey.
B. They care young bees and guard the hives.
C. Honey bees live in a big group or colony.
D. These bees live in small group to survive.
E. Honey bees fly from one flower to other.
35. The second paragraph tells us about...
A. the functions of queen bee.
B. a reproduction of honey bees.
C. how honey bees produce honey.
D. how bees move to different places.
E. how eggs become larva, pupa then adult bee.
36. Based on the text, we infer that …
A. honey can be used for recovering the illness.
B. honey bees are hardly ever living in plants.
C. honey may not be hopeful for everyone.
D. honey is just for sweeting.
E. honey bees produce sugar.
The following text is for questions 37 and 38.
OPPORTUNITY
A big western restaurant in Kuta 50 m from the beach. Busy area Looking for waitresses and waiters
Requirements:
Good looking, polite, communicative.
Good at English is a plus!
Send your application letter, CV and recent photograph to Rainbow Resto,
JI. Kuta Barat No. 5 Kuta.
Not later than 28th May 2014.
37. The text is about ….A. a job vacancy
B. a new restaurant
C. an amazing Kuta Beach
D. good waitresses and waiters
E. an opportunity to work in Kuta
38. What is one of the prerequisites requested?
A. Communicating English passively
B. Communicating English fluently
C. Behaving impolitely
D. Performing happily
E. Showing sympathy
The following text is for questions 39 to 42.
Nuclear power is generated by using uranium which is a metal mined in various part of the world. The first large scale of nuclear power station was opened at Calder Hall in Cumbria, England in 1956.
Some military ships and submarines have nuclear power plant for engine. Nuclear power produces around 11% of the world's energy needed, and produces huge amounts of energy. It causes no pollution as we would get when burning fossil fuels. The advantages of nuclear plant are: It costs about the same coal, so it is not expensive to make. It does not produce smoke or carbon dioxide, so it does not contribute to the greenhouse effect. It produces huge amounts of energy from small amount of uranium. It produces small amount of waste. It is reliable. On the other hand, nuclear power is very, very dangerous. It must be sealed up and buried for many years to allow the radioactivity to die away. Furthermore, although it is reliable, a lot of money has to be spent on safety because if it does go wrong, a nuclear accident can be a major accident. People are increasingly concerned about this matter. In the 1990's nuclear power was the fastest growing source of power in many parts of the world.
39. How energy is used to make nuclear power?
A. Coal
B. Fossil
C. Nuclear
D. Uranium
E. Carbon dioxide
40. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Nuclear power produces the world's energy.
B. Nuclear produces huge amounts of energy.
C. Nuclear power gives many advantages.
D. Nuclear produces strong energy.
E. Nuclear power is reliable.
41. Which of the following is not related to the text?
A. The cost is expensive.
B. It causes no pollution.
C. Nuclear power is very dangerous.
D. A little uranium can produce a big amount of energy.
E. In the 1990's nuclear power was the fastest growing source of power.
42. The text mainly discuss ….
A. The danger of nuclear power
B. The benefit of nuclear power
C. The advantage of nuclear power
D. The disadvantage of nuclear power
E. The advantage and disadvantage of nuclear power
The following text is for questions 43 to 45.
After my damning review of Eclipse, I’m sure you must have guessed that I didn’t hold out much hope for the finale of the Twilight saga, Breaking Dawn. Eclipse would have been a decent book as a standalone, but in the context of being the third book in a good series it should have offered a lot more. Thankfully, Breaking Dawn is of the quality that we expected after Twilight and New Moon. The book is written in three parts, the first and final part of which is from Bella’s point of view, as were the first three books in the saga. The middle part is Jacob Blacks point of view of the problem created in the first part. It is an interesting narrative, and the author pulled this off pretty well. The one downside of this was that her writing as Jacob was still a little reminiscent of a teenage girl, rather than a testosterone filled male werewolf. On honeymoon in Brazil, Bella and Edward consummate the marriage which begins the book. Bella begins to notice her body changing and they realise it is an over-accelerated pregnancy. The baby, which is half-vampire half-human, is threatening to destroy its mother, Bella. Breaking Dawn offers more than Eclipse but the story becomes a little predictable. It is a fine ending to a decent saga, but if Stephenie Meyer doesn’t want to run the series into the ground she won’t bother writing any prequel/sequel/parallel stories in the Twilight saga, because with each book they all got a bit repetitive. As a standalone book, it was an easy read and full of the twists and turns we have seen Meyer pull off in the saga. As the fourth book in the Twilight series it was a fitting finale. The twi-hards (twilight fanatics) will undoubtedly be happy with the way the book ends, but for fantasy readers who are less tolerant of the clichéd stories and fairytale-esque approach, nothing will particularly come as a surprise. Breaking Dawn is a must-read if you have started the series and want to see the story through.
43. What does the text tell about?
A. A good book of Twilight Saga
B. The final film of Twilight Saga
C. A review of Breaking Dawn film
D. A review of Breaking Dawn novel
E. A must-read book of Twilight Saga
44. Why is Breaking Dawn an easy read book?
A. Breaking Dawn is a standalone book.
B. The plot of the story is written orderly.
C. The story of Breaking Dawn is predictable.
D. The story of Breaking Dawn is really attractive.
E. Breaking Dawn is the final book of Twilight Saga.
45. The writer’s view of Breaking Dawn is that …
A. it is unworthy to read.
B. it is as good as Eclipse.
C. it is interesting book to read.
D. it less interesting than Twilight.
E. it less interesting than New Moon.
46. Arrange the following phrases or sentences into the correct order!
1) Boil sugar for about 30 minutes.
2) Scratch the flesh of a melon.
3) Put the decorations on the glass with a piece of strawberry on it.
4) Cut the fruit round or dice.
5) Pour the sugar water, put ice cubes and put milk on ice fruit.
The correct arrangement is …..
A. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3 – 5
B. 2 – 4 – 5 – 1 – 3
C. 2 – 4 – 1 – 5 – 3
D. 4 – 2 – 5 – 3 – 1
E. 2 – 5 – 1 – 3 – 4
47. Arrange the following sentences into the correct order!
(1) The first kingdom in Java was Medang Kamulan, and the king was the Giant King Dewata Cengkar, the cruel King of the country who had a habit to eat human flesh of his own people.
(2) Eventually, Aji Saka became a ruler of Medang Kamulan.
(3) One day a young wise man came to Java, by the name of Aji Saka to fight Dewata Cengkar.
(4) Dewata Cengkar did not die, he became a Bajul Putih (White Crocodile).
(5) After arriving in Java, Aji Saka moved inland to the kingdom of Medang Kamulan
(6) In the big battle, Aji Saka could successfully push Dewata Cengkar to fall to the Javan Southern Sea (Indian Ocean).
The correct arrangement is ….
A. 1-2-3-5-6-4
B. 1-3-5-6-4-2
C. 1-4-5-6-3-2
D. 1-5-3-6-2-4
E. 1-6-3-5-4-2
Questions 48 to 50, complete the following paragraph with the correct words provided.
Do you know Easter Island? Well, Easter Island is in the South Pacific, 3,700 kilometers from the coast of Chile. On the island, there are 600 large statues. We don’t know who built them but they were probably (48) … between 1150 and 1500. We don’t really know why they are there, The Easter Island. Norwegian explorer, Thor Heyerdahl, believed that they were built by people from South America. To prove this, he made a (49) … raft and sailed there, all the way from Peru.
Archaeologists think that the statues represent dead tribal leaders. We don’t know why the statues left alone on the island. Perhaps they were killed by disease or war. Perhaps the builders used all the natural resources on the island. There are many unanswered (50) … about Easter Island.
48. A. found
B. discovered
C. researched
D. constructed
E. investigated
49. A. simple
B. doubt
C. difficult
D. attractive
E. challenging
50. A. statements
B. hypotheses
C. predictions
D. questions
E. guesses
Berikut ini soal dalam bentuk file Microsoft word/text dan file mp3 sekaligus kunci jawaban bisa di download dengan cara klik link download di bawah ini;
1.Download soal dan kunci (script listening) paket A
2.Download soal dan kunci (script listening) paket B
3.Download mp3 listening Dr.Kidam
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